PRO

  • PRO

    What it basically does is it blocks your endorfin glands...

    universal health care

    Drug companies and health insurance companies are quite literally killing America. There is a new drug that should be on the market called low dose naltrexone. This drug was developed by a close friend of my grandfather, and I know people who have used it successfully. What it basically does is it blocks your endorfin glands in your brain for a period of a about 7 hours, so you take it before you go to sleep. What happens when you block these glands is your brain makes more and more endorfins until they break the block. The endorfins strengthen your immune system and this process creates a great excess of them This drug has been studied extensively and has worked on HIV/AIDS and other auto-immune diseases, Alsheimer's, and many other diseases. Other benefits include very few side effects and -here's the important one- a very low cost of production. On paper, this is practically the perfect product for the treatment for the specified diseases. The drug companies, however, are refusing to market and sell it because it's so cheap. It's this kind of selfish capitalism that is costing innocent people THEIR LIVES. This is the The drug companies, however, are refusing to market and sell it because it's so cheap. It's this kind of selfish capitalism that is costing innocent people THEIR LIVES. This is the basic situation. Capitalist A works for an insurance company. He's an executive that has a high enough salary already. Working-class citizen B has a brain tumor the size of a golf ball. He needs surgery that he can't afford. The job of the insurance company that capitalist A works for is to make sure he gets the money he needs. The reality of the actions insurance company make it seem that their objective is to AVOID giving citizen B his money by any means necessary. This kind of thing is KILLING AMERICANS. It does not get any simpler than this. Citizen B is going to die for one reason and one reason only. Capitalist A needed the money to pay for his island vacation. Need I say more?

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/universal-health-care/4/
  • PRO

    Prelude I want to thank my opponent Zaradi for accepting...

    Assisted Suicide Laws should be Universal

    Prelude I want to thank my opponent Zaradi for accepting this debate. He's a fantastic debater and I look forward for an excellent and an exciting debate. I was inspired to initiate this debate as I research further and learn more about democracy, freedom and justice. But I also want to give credit to FourTrouble who defeated me on a separate debate (unfairly of course ;) ). Some of his counter arguments were very valid and had a significant influence on this debate. Framework As per the resolution in the first round, this debate is not about whether Assisted Suicide should be allowed or not. This debate is about whether laws to prohibit or to allow Assisted Suicide should be applicable to everyone, or to only the terminally ill. There are four possible scenarios on how Assisted Suicide laws can be applied: 1. No laws pertaining to Assisted Suicide exist, and would therefore be permitted. 2. Laws exist that prohibit Assisted Suicide. 3. Laws exist that permit Assisted Suicide to everyone. 4. Laws exist to permit Assisted Suicide to the terminally ill, and prohibit it from the rest. The first three scenarios are clearly universal, so they are not necessarily the subject of this debate. I am arguing against the fourth scenario, where some have the right to Assisted Suicide and others don't. Overview: Why the Terminally Ill? In the fourth scenario, Assisted Suicide for the terminally ill is considered justified by a certain legislative body. This means that the legislative body agrees that the terminally ill have the right to die and the right of self determination. It also suggests that the legislative body agrees that those who feel loss of autonomy and loss of dignity [1] are justified to request for Assisted Suicide. My objection however is that it shouldn't be limited to only the terminally ill and should be made available to everyone. I will demonstrate my case below: Contention 1: Undermines Equality and Infringes on Human Rights Overview of Equality in a Democracy Equality is the main ingredient of democracy. Political scientist Thomas Christiano writes "[D]emocracy […] requires that each person's interests ought to be given equal consideration in choosing the laws and policies of a society. This approach begins with Thomas Rainsborough's observation that 'the poorest he that is in England has a life to live as the greatest he.'" [2]. This is why equality is engraved in the constitutions of virtually every country around the world. In Canada (I'm Canadian), Article 15 of the Canadian Charter Of Rights And Freedoms states: "Every individual is equal before and under the law and has the right to the equal protection and equal benefit of the law without discrimination and, in particular, without discrimination based on race, national or ethnic origin, colour, religion, sex, age or mental or physical disability" [3]. This is reiterated in Amendment XIV of the US constitution [4], and Articles II-80 and II-81 of the European Union constitution [5]. Undermines Equality This law clearly discriminates against those who are not terminally ill. The law is basically stating that the terminally ill have the right to die and right to self determination, but others should not have those rights. It undermines equality as the terminally ill are privileged with certain rights, while others are denied these rights. This is not simply a theoretical argument. There are others who are not terminally ill, but also demand the right to assisted suicide. An elderly couple wanted assisted suicide and they weren't terminally ill [6]. A mentally ill Canadian wants access to Assisted Suicide [7]. Now there is a Swiss group that wants Assisted Suicide for the elderly [8]. How can it be justified to allow it for only the terminally ill, when others have the very same reasons that justified permitting it for the terminally ill? The disabled, the mentally ill and the elderly may also feel loss of autonomy and loss of dignity. These are subjective measures that are defined by the people themselves. Anyone has the right to feel loss of autonomy and dignity and may wish to die. Preventing them from Assisted Suicide undermines their right to equality. If one assists someone who is not terminally ill to die, they may face significant punishments. It violates the freedom of choice of other citizens and infringes on their human rights. Therefore, I argue that equality necessitates that this law should be either made available to everyone, or banned altogether. That's because everyone is equal under the law. In other words, the law is blind. If Image failed to load, here's the link [http://www.debate.org...] Contention 2: Undermines the Human Value of the Terminally Ill By stating that the terminally ill are permitted to die, but others citizens shouldn't be permitted strongly implies that lives of the terminally ill have less worth and are expendable. Basically, it sends a message that it's ok for the terminally ill to die. After all, they don't have much left in their life, right? They would be considered as burdens to the society. We shouldn't care for them as much. They are basically inferior to other humans. There is a definite risk where the society would be less willing to provide for their healthcare and health research. And if the society devalues the human worth of the terminally ill, it would be much more likely for the terminally ill to be bullied into assisted suicide. A study published by the Centre for Policy Studies said: "Society’s most vulnerable risk being bullied into an early death by greedy or uncaring relatives or bureaucrats" [9]. However if the right to Assisted Suicide is applicable to everyone, the human value of every person would remain the same. No one is better than another. A law that treats everyone the same, values everyone the same. Therefore when the greatest physicist Hawking said that he would consider Assisted Suicide in a Q&A [10], why do you think someone even asked him the question in the first place? Most people know the great contributions that he has given. But to imagine that despite all his great contributions, someone would ask him this question because of his illness was very upsetting to be honest. But if everyone has the same right, regardless if they have the right to die or not, the terminally ill would no longer be singled out. Thank you for reading. I ask my opponent to kindly wait until the third day before posting his round. We have a long weekend in Canada and I will have limited access to a laptop. Sources [1] Stephen Dilley, Nathan J. Palpant, "Human Dignity in Bioethics: From Worldviews to the Public Square", pp. 270 https://books.google.ca... [2] http://philosophyfaculty.ucsd.edu... [3] http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca... [4] http://www.archives.gov... [5] http://www.unizar.es... [6] http://www.dailymail.co.uk... [7] http://www.huffingtonpost.ca... [8] http://www.theguardian.com... [9] http://www.irishexaminer.com... [10] http://www.theguardian.com...

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/Assisted-Suicide-Laws-should-be-Universal/1/
  • PRO

    Please provide your [trustful] source which states that...

    English should not be considered an international or universal language.

    The statement that all diplomatic organizations use English is false. The Nordic Council only uses 3 languages, none of which are English (http://en.wikipedia.org...). The Arab League has 1 official language, Arabic (http://en.wikipedia.org...). The Arab Maghreb Union has 2, Arabic and French (http://en.wikipedia.org...). Governments/organizations speak the language that most of the people they speak with will understand. Yes, most government leaders know English, but only use it when dealing with English speaking people. The leaders of UAE and Saudi Arabia will use Arabic when talking. The leaders of El Salvador and Mexico will use Spanish when in meeting. Please note, I do say most, not all governments. Please provide your [trustful] source which states that 25% of the world speaks English. This brings me to another point. English is a very hard language for many to learn. If you are not a European (or any country that writes in the Latin Alphabet), you will have to learn a new alphabet. Some people will even have to learn to produce a new sound (for example, someone who only speaks Hebrew will have to learn to make the "j" sound). The grammar is very different form that of Arabic, and the writing system different from most Asian languages. English is very irregular and complex, so that makes it much more difficult for those not raised in an English environment to learn. A truly Please provide your [trustful] source which states that 25% of the world speaks English. This brings me to another point. English is a very hard language for many to learn. If you are not a European (or any country that writes in the Latin Alphabet), you will have to learn a new alphabet. Some people will even have to learn to produce a new sound (for example, someone who only speaks Hebrew will have to learn to make the "j" sound). The grammar is very different form that of Arabic, and the writing system different from most Asian languages. English is very irregular and complex, so that makes it much more difficult for those not raised in an English environment to learn. A truly universal language would have to incorporate all the different types of language into one and be very regular, so that anyone can learn it with not too much difficulty.

  • PRO

    It is important in this analysis to consider that, even...

    Cost savings with universal health care will outweigh program costs

    It is important in this analysis to consider that, even if universal health care were to cost more now, that these costs could easily be outweighed by long-term cost-savings. In other words, the costs of not implementing universal health care would be greater than the costs of implementing it.

  • PRO

    Universal health care is about cutting costs,...

    Universal health care is not welfare; its benefits are diverse/widespread

    Universal health care is about cutting costs, streamlining patient care, simplifying care, and providing high quality health care to all citizens. The benefits are far to diverse to pigeon-hole universal health care as just "welfare".

  • PRO

    Think about a man who is so poor that he can barely pay...

    Universal Health Care

    I would like to thank my opponent for the wonderful topic to debate, this should prove to be interesting. FIRST - I want to make it clear that in this round I am going to support single-payer health care rather than the health care mandate that Obamacare is. Contention 1: Health care should be a right the problem with companies providing health care is that it is, in a way, an inelastic demand. What is an inelastic demand? well it is a service that if the price was raised people could just stop buying it. A lot of people say "Well, You can stop buying health insurance," and this is a troubled way of thinking. Think about a man who is so poor that he can barely pay for the clothes on his back, he finds it hard to make it to every next meal; this man gets a cut on his hand, he wraps it up and moves on. 2 days later his hand hurts where he was cut; he has the obvious choice of going to the doctor and getting it looked at, or being able to pay for his next few meals. He chooses to eat, because you cant live without food, 3 days later the man is dead from staph infection.... This man had to choose between dying from starvation or dying from staph infection...... AND the government is the only thing suitable for providing rights to people because of the fact that there isn't that competition there. Contention 2: saves money You feel a pain in your side and ignore it, a few days later your appendix explodes and you're in the hospital getting an expensive surgery, if you had caught it at the pain and gone to the doctor then it would have cost a couple bucks of antibiotics, but the surgery cost thousands of dollars..... You can't pay it because you don't have insurance, you file bankruptcy and the cost of that surgery is added to the premiums of other people with insurance...... catching things early is key to saving money and we can't do that when we're so reluctant to go to the doctors, in Japan people go to the doctors 6 times a year on average. On Capitalism194's points (his point) 'Major insurance companies will fail because people flock to the govt.' -------- first off this isn't true for the fact that I think all universal health care systems except Taiwan have it set up like this.... the government pays for the insurance................. that means that they pay the insurance companies.... All I have to do is point at Health insurance companies in the UK which are doing perfectly fine. (his point) 'competition is non-existent' -------- All insurance is, is paying for health care, the actual care received comes from hospitals not the govt... and the fact that the insurance companies are still there means that this point fails to gain traction..... SIDENOTE----- nearly all of our serious developments in medication happen due to publicly funded universities and hospitals

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/Universal-Health-Care/22/
  • PRO

    There is near-universal access to the Internet in many...

    Government subsidies can help achieve universal access.

    There is near-universal access to the Internet in many modern democracies. Ensuring that the rest of the population receives broadband connections, or at least the infrastructure that enables individuals to buy broadband anywhere, can be achieved through government subsidization.

  • PRO

    Kofi Annan, Former U.N. Secretary-General at the signing...

    ICC advances universal rights and international law

    Kofi Annan, Former U.N. Secretary-General at the signing of the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court - "The establishment of the Court is still a gift of hope to future generations, and a giant step forward in the march towards universal human rights and the rule of law."[

  • PRO

    Rather, it simply allows another avenue to justice so...

    Universal jurisdiction does not replace domestic courts. Rather, it simply allows another avenue to...

    Universal jurisdiction does not replace domestic courts. Rather, it simply allows another avenue to justice so that, if the domestic judicial system fails to act on something, the possibility of justice is not extinguished. If anything, this should create an effective incentive for national judicial systems to be more efficient in pursuing wrongdoers. \ Universal jurisdiction would be an effective system. Because of the importance of its decisions, it would likely attract a significant proportion of leading legal talent. Therefore, it would be a well thought out and properly run jurisdiction. Enforcement of its decisions could be by multilateral or bilateral treaties.\

    • https://debatewise.org/debates/2735-universal-jurisdiction/
  • PRO

    Questioning the "Right" to Health Care". ... This is...

    Government-funded universal health care is no right

    Anthony Randazzo. "Questioning the "Right" to Health Care". Reason Foundation. 2009. - "People sometimes argue in favor of a "Questioning the "Right" to Health Care". Reason Foundation. 2009. - "People sometimes argue in favor of a universal human right to health care by saying that health care is different from all other human goods or products. It is supposedly an important precondition of life itself. This is wrong: There are several other, much more important preconditions of human existence, such as food, shelter and clothing...."

CON

  • CON

    People should pay only for health services they...

    Single-payer universal health care

    People should pay only for health services they themselves receive

  • CON

    Many uninsured can easily afford it so should not receive...

    Single-payer universal health care

    Many uninsured can easily afford it so should not receive sympathy

  • CON

    Can you convince me that I should value the well being of...

    There are universal, objective moral values

    Consensus human opinion (which doesn't exist yet) defines our morality. There is no such thing as objective morality; only self-serving and self created "human rights" which only exist as long as we have the power to enforce them. Can you convince me that I should value the well being of others? If I had the power to set every living thing and resource on the planet in such a way that it all serves as a support structure for my own happiness, how can you say that it would be objectively wrong for me to do that? Unless there would be punishment in the afterlife, it's literally impossible for me to care about the rest of the world after I die. Even if there is a supreme creator being, morality is just an alignment with his will, and that is only absolute because he can enforce it with his power. Benevolence, in relation to a god, is still a meaningless and subjective opinion. Assuming he is all powerful, that just means he can enforce his will. Then "morality" is what ever he wants and "amorality" is anything he doesn't want, which can't exist if he is truly all powerful. It doesn't mean anything.

  • CON

    There is also a lot of embryological evidence where...

    Last Universal Ancestor/Common Descent of ALL species.

    Very good Contender! This is going to be a good one I can tell. I will begin this round with my counter-arguments. Molecular Evidence: "This area includes our common DNA and protein functional redundancy where many basic structures are shared and support the most basic functions of life." If these areas are supporting the basic functions of life, it only makes sense that all species alive would have common DNA. I admit this creates a plausible argument for common descent when variances go as low as 1.2% when talking about chimpanzees, but you are talking about a it is still a logical gap that you are trying to bridge with your conclusion that we must have the same ancestors. We have a 1.2% difference, but you are talking about something absurd like 300 billion lines of "coding", so 1.2% is a lot. Not to mention that scientists don't really understand 98% of our DNA anyways (which you have already led me into). "We can also trace "fossilized" DNA no longer useful and junk DNA strands to link different species..." Fascinating stuff DNA. is! I am glad you brought this up, because I had recently been reading up on this particular topic. Turns out that junk 98% isn't really junk, and actually affects how the other 2% acts. http://www.medicalnewstoday.com... "...and to demonstrate where different forms of life branched off from their ancestors and all future species in the line share these characteristics." This is kind-of like playing connect the dots with an unfathomable amount of dots, but in this case the dots are something much more complex that we do not fully understand. http://www.nbcnews.com... Notice how these guys always talk: "...genetic variants that seem to overlap" "We think this is..." "This finding could suggest..." They are still figuring it out. They are far from writing the book. Historical Phylogenetic Tree: "These start with bacteria and eukaryotes and end with all modern forms of life. Here common decent was largely established based on observable characteristics of species often in the geological fossil records." All of the fossils show variances within a species, not species becoming other species in any way shape or form. They explain the tree as connecting all species, but when you look at the fossils, they have something that looked kind-of like an octopus and say "aha! Must be the ancestor of the octopus (instead of perhaps a deformed or runt octopus). Ok, well maybe it is, but at some point you have to take all our ancestors and explain how they all evolved separately from bacteria. Furthermore, the bacteria is only ever seen mutating into bacteria; viruses into viruses. We have no fossilized bacterias from the earliest stages in the so called "tree of life", so it is pure speculation to begin with. "There are many examples of animals with anatomical vestiges from the past such as whales with hind limbs." There is also a despised fish called a "snakehead" which eats everything in a river and then grow leg-like fins which allow them to travel for up to four days. Whether forwards or in reverse, its a variation within species, not a transition to another species. The snakeheads do not become mammals. We could assume that much older cases are legitimate transitions, but how would a whale walk about on land? Whales don't come right before bipedal animals in the evolutionary tree, so what kind of weird stuff is going on here? "There is also a lot of embryological evidence where different developing structures form different features depending on the species." I am interested to see you expand upon this point, as this is something I have never heard before and do not fully understand what you mean yet. Speciation. This is also one of those arguments that sounds good at face value, but the conclusion does not necessarily result from the premises (a fish can adapt to become different but very similar fish, therefore a fish can also become a mammal). Now might be a good time to mention that I do accept adaptation and natural selection, if that helps you with my perspective a little bit. I am not saying that species stopped adapting, I am saying species adapt to their environment and not into other species. If that were the case, we would still have transitionals all over the place. Where are the whale-mammals? A whale fossil that appears to have hind legs (which might very well be something els hybrid does not impress; I have already conceded common ancestry from species to species. "(Opportunism and evolutionary restraint) reveal that new structures form from old structures making rapid changes difficult and certain changes nearly impossible." Opportunism is a theory that explains away the non-variances that remain after a "transition". This is comparable to saying "dogs still have tails, but they're for wagging now instead of swatting flies". In biology, it is simply a description of one organisms capability to adapt to different environments. Strong evidence for adaptation, not special transition. Evolutionary restraint poses issues for common descent in some circumstances. Sterile hybrids leave the question of how transitional organisms are able to stick around long enough to evolve into anything else, or why such a useless trait would even evolve to begin with. Also, if nature is "selecting things", then adaptation may not be its only option. Restraint doesn't lend anything to the idea that species become other species. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ How many years? First let me say, I am not a fundamentalist. 10,000 years is a ridiculous idea as well as 4.5 billion. It is not simply a fear of big numbers, but a number of factors which go into my problems with the accepted timeline: Dating Methods- I have already explained my overarching point here, so now I will expand upon this idea. We know that c14 dating fails around 15,000 years, while other radiometric dating methods are assumed to be accurate beyond this because we can't know otherwise. This again reflects a general desire within the scientific community to conduct research within a Darwinian envelope. Matter is neither created nor destroyed; it only changes forms. Therefore, no new matter is entering the universe. These isotopes, again, should be long gone, and the half-life is more of a speculation than a certainty. There are other problems as well-- for instance, in many published cases, radiometric dating of rocks or fossils did not line up with the geological or evolutionary timelines. In other cases, different samples were taken of the same fossil, and produced drastically different guesses. We also have no way of knowing whether the decay from isotope to half-life to decay rate remains constant, since we can't do experiments that are millions of years long. Moon Landing-- Apollo 11 found an average of a half inch of space dust on the moons surface. If it had been there for as long as they say, their should be about 54 feet, being that the moon has no atmosphere. Skewed geological record. Scientists now accept the global flood which is related in many ancient cultures, or some variation on it, but place it millions of years back. This completely ignores the effect it would have had on our geological record, especially if such an event broke up Pangea. It also doesn't explain why there are written accounts of what probably was a surviving oral tradition passed down by survivors. There would have been mass and in some cases instantaneous fossilizations, even more so if a super-volcanic eruption preceded the event (which has been suggested). Lack of evidence for civilizations predating 20,000 years ago (at maximum estimate). There is simply no reason to believe that other creatures predate man, if you do not accept the dating methods which place them further back. Early stories such as Job feature the Leviathan and Behemoth, while other cultures spoke of the Hydra and Dragons. This makes it hard to believe that early man did not encounter dinosaurs before they went extinct. I don't think you're description of Irreducible complexity is accurate. The idea behind it is that most organisms are comprised of complex systems-- each comprised of their own characteristics, and interdependent upon one another. For instance, there are many different types of eyes that creatures may have, such as Spherical or Refractive. Each is comprised of several parts, all of which are required for the eye to work. This can't evolve, unless you are evolving several different working components simultaneously, like a clock built in one step. "If it could be demonstrated that any complex organ existed which could not possibly have been formed by numerous, successive, slight modifications, my theory would absolutely break down." --Charles Darwin My point on the uniqueness of man is that there should be other species with the same capabilities, and this should be evident if we have been here 4.5 billion years. Also, humanity is inherently self-destructive-- the only species with both instinct and the free will to defy it against our own best interests. We most certainly are not products of natural selection, if you think about it, or we wouldn't be building nuclear weapons. "Humans are still monkeys" -- This is a hard argument to understand. I will "The majority, if not all, monkeys like ourselves have changed dramatically from our ancestors ~ 6 million years ago." - This is an assumption. Why are there still monkeys? Didn't they all evolve to the point there were no more transitionals left? How are there monkeys left? "I think this is fairly accurate and evolution phylogenetic tree looks like a bush with many evolving pathways leading to dead ends and roughly 99%+ species that have existed are estimated to be extinct." It is a cool l

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/Last-Universal-Ancestor-Common-Descent-of-ALL-species./1/
  • CON

    I accept

    Assisted Suicide Laws should be Universal

    I accept

  • CON

    On his Overview: That's not actually how K's work. K's...

    Assisted Suicide Laws should be Universal

    On his Overview: That's not actually how K's work. K's operate as a gateway to affirming the resolution and act on a higher level (in this case ontologically) than a normative case (in this case the AC). In order for you to be able to even access offense coming off of your case, the K has to be refuted. If you don't win on the K debate, I win straight out. But even if you're refuting the K, I can still win by refuting the AC. His first response against the K is simply that there's no warrant to the K, but the warrants are all in the cards I read off. Pro's unwillingness to read the quoted text doesn't mean that the K lacks warrants. His second response is that he doesn't link because his case doesn't long for a better world. There's a number of problems with this response. a) He does. Insofar as he's trying to allow equality in assisted suicide to respect people's humanity and other positive impacts that are absent in the status quo, he's longing for a better world, a world that isn't the world in which we live in. b) Turn this response against him. If the entire point of his case isn't to look for positive impacts of allowing equality in assisted suicide, then we have no reason to affirm the resolution. Look to his round one statement where he split the burden of proof - he has to be making arguments in favor of the resolution and be making positive impacts toward affirming the resolution. If he isn't doing that by this admission, then he can't actually win the debate. c) Pro's constantly being a moving target with his case. By his own admission he's not arguing for the benefits of assisted suicide, but he's not also against getting rid of assisted suicide, he just wants "equality" which means that he can either argue in favor of assisted suicide or against assisted suicide at his own whim. This is entirely unfair to me because I'm forced to defend one side of the resolution whereas his case allows him to defend whichever one strikes his fancy, and he can change at will. Hold him to defending the benefits of assisted suicide. d) Pro's flat out wrong in what his own case argues. He can't argue for getting rid of assisted suicide for everyone to "maximize equality" because by his own case it means that everyone is expendable and everyone's human value is being thrown into the trash which means that we ought to prefer the status quo where at least we're preserving some people's human value. Giving everyone the option to have assisted suicide is the only way he can actually access any of his impacts, which means he's biting into the K. His next response is his attempt to be a moving target again by saying that he can just ban it for everyone to be equal. I've already responded to this in multiple places. Don't let him take this stance. But even if you do let him take this stance, he still links to this argument. His entire argument revolves around the concept of making everyone feel equal and making sure that no one is more valuable than another person which, according to his case, preserves human value and worth. This is a direct link into Nietzsche 1 and Turanli. He's biting into the K no matter which goalpost he wants to take. His next argument is a turn on Nietzsche 1 by saying that allowing assisted suicide increases our own power which...somehow affirms...? The argument he makes doesn't make any kind of sense and is a misrepresentation of what the card is actually saying. Nietzsche's argument is that we give small little things to the people below us to make them more content with just being controlled by us and wanting to stay in our control, much like a parent would offer a child candy if they stop crying in a grocery store, the affirmative's attempt to give citizens equality is just their way of exercising control and dominance. There's no real logic behind his argument. His response to Nietzsche 2 is his attempt to be a moving target again. And even in his attempt to be a moving target, it still applies insofar as he's trying to give equality to everyone. And his second point is literally the entire point of the K, suffering is something that can't and shouldn't be reduced. And it doesn't matter if he's not arguing for ethics because I am. If anything this functions as another reason why the K operates apriori to the AC because ethics operates apriori to law - to say otherwise is the definition of the is/ought fallacy. I'm arguing for the ought while he's arguing for the is. And his argument against the alt is just him trying to be a moving target (again). This answers all of the direct responses to the K. The K stands as a rejection of universally allowing assisted suicide as a reduction of suffering, which leads to the harms of the K and a negation of human value and worth and makes life meaningless. Notice how his responses are only about how the K doesn't apply to his case or it doesn't apply to the "law" of assisted suicide. He doesn't address the impacts or doesn't actually address any of the warrants coming out of my K, rather rejects that it applies to his case. Insofar as I'm a) showing you how he's linking regardless of which side of his moving target he decides to hop to, and b) making him actually defend one stance instead of being constantly fluid in which he links regardless, the K applies. This means that I'm still winning the K debate. On Death of the K I've already responded to his first point in multiple places. His second point is a misrepresentation and it's literally the definition of ontology. He keeps interpreting things in a normative sense whereas my case addresses human worth from an ontological perspective. The K functions apriori because of this. His third point is irrelevant and a repetition of how he's being a moving target. Insofar as he's trying to advocate for assisted suicide/equality (since they're apparently able to be used interchangably now in the AC) as a way to preserve human worth, he violates human worth by trying to reduce suffering. His fourth point doesn't make any f*cking sense. The entire point of my argument there is that the things he's trying to extend off as his impacts (equality/human worth/the right to such things/etc.) are only worth protecting in the AC insofar as having them is a good thing and violating those things causes the victims of the violation to suffer. It means that either a) he links into the K because by not affirming we cause suffering or at least prevent suffering from being reduced or b) there's no real impacts behind the affirmative case and no real reason to value the impacts he's advocating for, meaning he can't win. His point here isn't responsive to my actual argument. And the argument isn't actually dependent on the K, it's not even addressing the K. This argument is specifically about his argument and how his impacts actually function as impacts. On the "Counter-K" First, this is all literally an appeal to emotion. His argument is that rape and violence and all these things are wrong because "cmon man! you're being offensive!" without any kind of warrant as to why these things are bad. Second, this doesn't actually address the warrants coming out of the K as to why suffering is preferrable and why it actually allows for the furthering and transcendence of humanity as a race. The only part of the Counter-K that I actually contest as not applicable to the K is the whole tangent about murder and genocide - we can only suffer insofar as we're still alive, meaning anything involving death isn't what the K advocates for because it means that there's one less person that can suffer. This is another way how the K negates the resolution just straight out - universally allowing people to acceptably kill themselves reduces the amount of suffering being experienced in the world which is a link into the K. Summary: Pro's case is a moving target - he can either defend both allowing everyone to have access to assisted suicide and allowing no one to have access to assisted suicide at the same time. This literally means he can access affirmative and negative offense at the same time while denying me any kind of offense. Force him to just pick one side to defend. Moreover, his case doesn't make any kind of sense unless he's advocating for allowing everyone access to assisted suicide because the flipside a) neglects the needs and worth of the terminally ill and b) makes the claim that everyone is usable and everyone's worth is open to violation, which is in direct conflict with his case. This means he *has* to defend giving everyone access to assisted suicide for his case to even make sense. Regardless of which side he ends up defending, both link into the harms of the K. Given that 70% of his last round was spent trying to separate the K from his case, and virtually all of the warrants coming out of the K and impacts from the K get dropped, this is catastrophic to his chances of winning the debate. This means two things - A) I'm still winning of the K by default because it's sufficient to negate the resolution just straight up. And B) it turns his case because the very things he's trying to protecting by advocating for equality are violated and human life becomes worthless and devoid of any kind of value.

  • CON

    As per my sources, homosexual activity carries with it a...

    Gay Marriage Should be Legalized

    I would like to remind my opponent that he has not yet argued in favor of his proposition, and that the burden of proof is on him for: a) Making a universal statement in his main proposition. "(Same-Sex Marriage) doesn't hurt anyone;" b) Propounding a change from the status quo; as Same-Sex Marriage is currently illegal in most states, and he declares it should by right be legal in all; and: c) Stating categorically that the Fourteenth Amendment (to the US Constitution) grants a right to Same-Sex Marriage. I would like to point out also that for (a) to be true, there cannot be even ONE case, in all of history, that marriage between individuals of the same gender caused no harm to anyone. I ask my opponent how he intends to defend a universal negative? ~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Refutation ~~~~~~~~~~~~~ My opponent's first contention: "Same-Sex Marriage should be legalized in every state because there is no reason for it to be illegal, as it doesn't hurt anyone." His syllogism, as I construct it, is as follows: Same-Sex Marriage is a thing that does not hurt anyone All things that do not hurt anyone are things that should be legal Therefore, Same-Sex Marriage should be legal. This is, I believe, a fair rendering of his statement into logical form. His second premise is implied in his sentence. I will remind the voters and those reading that my opponent did not clarify anything in his second round; and left me, as it were, to my own devices. If I am treating his contentions unfairly, I apologize in advance; and ask that his third round argument set me straight where I have wandered from his meaning. ---------------- Taking this one piece at a time: "...doesn't hurt anyone." I contend that Same-Sex Marriage may hurt people. Same-Sex Marriage involves homosexual activity. As per my sources, homosexual activity carries with it a higher risk of AIDS/HIV than heterosexual activity: http://www.nytimes.com... http://online.wsj.com... http://news.bbc.co.uk... My syllogisms: Same-Sex Marriage involves homosexual activity, Homosexual activity carries a comparatively high risk of AIDS/HIV, Therefore Same-Sex Marriage carries a comparatively high risk of AIDS/HIV. Same-Sex Marriage may give people AIDS/HIV,* AIDS/HIV is harmful (e.g. "hurts people"); Therefore, Same-Sex Marriage may harm people. *(as in, "carries a comparatively high risk of AIDS/HIV") I contend that Same-Sex Marriage may harm people, and thus the universal negative "Same-Sex Marriage...doesn't hurt anyone" may be false. Further, I contend that to verify a universal negative, which this preposition is, one must have universal knowledge of the subject. This is impossible in such a broad, subjective subject; if there was even one Same-Sex Marriage in all of history that caused "hurt" to anyone, this preposition is false, and negates my opponent's argument. ---------------- A brief look at: "All things that do not hurt anyone are things that should be legal" Again, quote from my interpretation of his reasoning. His actual words: "Same-Sex Marriage should be legalized in every state because there is no reason for it to be illegal, as it doesn't hurt anyone." So, he says: Same-Sex Marriage should be legal, because there is no reason for it not to be legal. There is no reason for it not to be legal, because it does not hurt anyone. I would challenge this statement, and provide an impossibly vague definition for "hurt;" however, I am not here to fight with semantics. As so far I have provided all the definitions used in this debate, I challenge my opponent to provide a definition for "hurt" that will clarify his ambiguous statement. ---------------- My opponent's second contention: Same-Sex Marriage is a right protected by the Fourteenth Amendment (to the US Constitution). The text of the Fourteenth Amendment (to the US Constitution): Amendment XIV "Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws." As found here: http://www.law.cornell.edu...... The issue boils down to those important words in the first Section: "No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States..." We have already defined a privilege as: "a right or immunity granted as a peculiar benefit, advantage, or favor." http://www.merriam-webster.com...... This section is concerned with the states making laws infringing on the rights peculiar to American citizens. There are rights spelled out in the first ten Amendments to the Constitution, known as the Bill of Rights, which pertain to all American citizens; but as the Tenth Amendment provides: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people." http://www.law.cornell.edu... Thus, in areas that the US Constitution leaves open, the states and local governments may limit the rights of their citizens. Examples of these limitations would be gun control laws, traffic regulations, safety regulations, waste water controls, littering prohibitions, and so on. Also included in this would be the issue of Same-Sex Marriage; hence the recent rush of State Legislatures to debate enacting laws concerning Same-Sex Marriage. The Fourteenth Amendment to the US Constitution in its first Section forbids the States from making laws that deny the rights basic to US citizenship; it does not guarantee a blank slate of freedom from law. If it did there could be no state-made law, and my opponent's contention would fail, as he requires that "Same-Sex Marriage should be legalized in every state..." Whether the right to Same-Sex Marriage is guaranteed in the first ten amendments is a separate debate; I only need prove that the Fourteenth Amendment to the US Constitution does not give the right to Same-Sex Marriage for my contention to stand. I contend the Fourteenth Amendment to the US Constitution leaves the issue of Same-Sex Marriage to be decided by the States; and thus does not protect this proposed "right." ~~~~~~~~~~~~~ To summarize: 1) Same Sex Marriage carries a high risk of AIDS/HIV, and thus my be reasonably supposed to hurt people; 2) My opponent's argument contains unverifiable universal negatives, and thus is invalid; 3) The Fourteenth Amendment to the US Constitution leaves the issue of Same-Sex Marriage to be decided by the States; and thus does not protect this proposed "right." I hold that my contentions stand as stated. Again, I thank my opponent for this thought-provoking debate; I have enjoyed the exercise in logic so far, and look forward to reading his arguments.

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/Gay-Marriage-Should-be-Legalized/2/
  • CON

    For this debate, I want to use the definition: The level...

    Governments should value economic equality before prosperity

    This topic underlies many important issues in society. Thanks to Pro for instigating the challenge. Definitions Prosperity. Prosperity is measured by the average annual income of the members of a society. For societies that rely mainly by subsistence agriculture and barter, Calculations of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) [1. http://en.wikipedia.org...], measured by monetary transactions, divided by population will not accurately reflect the relative wealth of the community. In any society, not all of GDP is reflected in individual income. I doubt that either issue will be important in the debate, but they might arise. For our purposes GDP per capita will be a suitable measure of prosperity. Distributions of wealth. Perfect equality would be everyone in society having exactly the same income. As a graph of numbers of people versus income distribution, in a perfectly equal society all the people would appear on the graph at a single spike at one income level. While there is only one way for everyone to be equal, there are many ways that wealth may be unequally distributed. If the factors leading to some quantity occur randomly multiply, the result will be a log-normal distribution. [2. http://en.wikipedia.org...] The distribution of the sizes of trees in a forest, IQ scores, the sex drive of humans, he sizes of cities, and a host of other natural phenomena are well described by the log normal distribution. So if a forest grows undisturbed, the trees will nave a log normal distribution of sizes. A farmer growing oranges will trim the trees to uniform size, artificially producing equality. I know this statistical talk is inherently very nasty, but I doubt there is any way to avoid it. Poverty level. We will need a definition of "poverty level." This is somewhat controversial of late, because the U.S. government has introduced a new definition of poverty in terms of equality. For this debate, I want to use the definition: The level of income in a society at which the basic needs for food, clothing, and shelter are met. The income level at which basic needs are met varies with the society. In the U.S., it is a family income of about $30,000 a year. $30,000 per year in underdeveloped countries would correspond to substantial wealth. It varies substantially within the US. In rural areas, $30,000 allows a better lifestyle than in expensive urban areas. I have no objection to using other definitions of poverty level in the debate, but I ask alternatives be distinguished by some additional word added to the phrase poverty level. Again I don't think we need an extremely precise definition. I will be arguing that the economic goal of society should be to raise as many people as possible above the poverty level, meaning that we should want as many people as possible to have their basic needs met. I think we can argue that without getting into a discussion as to whether for a particular society "basic needs" includes a cell phone or not. Happiness. I will need a definition of happiness. Fortunately, the idea of happiness is universal. There are actually measures of levels of happiness in societies. The important think is that the measures all depend upon self-assessment. The principle is that if you think you are happy or unhappy, there is no better authority for the opinion. The Wikipedia article on happiness economics gives an overview of the subject. [3. http://en.wikipedia.org...] The Satisfaction with Life Index is, I think, a pretty good measure. [4. http://en.wikipedia.org...]. United Nations Human Development Index is empirical, but it seems reasonable. [5. http://www.cnngo.com...] the two generally follow each other in broad outline. Pro's definitions Pro is right when he says that economic equality is about standard of living, but he's wrong in asserting that employers being fair has anything to do with that. People may be economically equal or unequal largely independent of employment. For example, The Prince of Monaco provides free housing to all citizens, and that has nothing to do with employer fairness. Subsistence agriculture has a high degree of equality with everyone self employed. "Fairness" is completely subjective. What Pro or the government thinks is fair may be completely at odds with other concepts of fairness. I have heard the argument that it is unfair to discriminate on grounds of competence. Pro also claims government must do all it can to fight unemployment. That's not a measure of equality. Again, rich princes may provide a large amount equalization without concern for employment. I agree that unemployment is a concern in economic policy, but that concern arises in my case and Pro's case. It's not part of the definition. A significant minimum wage always increases unemployment, but whether that is good or bad overall is a matter to be argued. If equality is the primary goal of economic policy, it can always be achieved through universal poverty. The question is about the priorities of policy. What's more important? On to Pro's case.

    • https://www.debate.org/debates/Governments-should-value-economic-equality-before-prosperity/2/
  • CON

    This is not a debate on origins or creationism; it is a...

    Last Universal Ancestor/Common Descent of ALL species.

    This is meant to be a casual debate over the course of several days. The idea is to have time to research your arguments and find supporting evidence (not to mention, having a life). You can use as much of the 3 days as you want-- I work and go to school, so my schedule requires this flexibility. What we have here are five rounds: The first round is for introductions and presenting main points, the second and third rounds are for counter-arguments and substantiation or refutation of main points. The fourth round will be final counter arguments and any additional supporting evidence you wish to share. The fifth round is for summarizing your argument and counterargument (if you so desire), and any closing remarks. I do not disagree that species evolve, or that certain species likely share common ancestry. I am challenging the notion that all species evolved from one common ancestor, commonly called the "Last Universal Ancestor". This is not a debate on origins or creationism; it is a debate specifically about the idea that all life on Earth descended from one life form. The points I will be arguing are as follow: Literally billions of years are required for this type of evolutionary branching to reach such diversity. I will be challenging the notion that the earth has existed for billions of years, as well as the dating methods and genetic "discoveries" which are often cited as evidence of common descent and old-earth theory. Species evolve through adaptation, but they don't evolve into entirely separate species. I will be supporting this argument using research from biology and also using inductive reasoning. Many species are comprised of irreducible complexities. We can debate this I am sure, because it poses a serious problem for evolutionary theory that often provokes dismissiveness and some rather absurd hypothesizing as far as counter-arguments go. If species have been evolving for billions of years from a common ancestor, why are we the only one amongst MILLIONS of species to develop advanced civilization, communication, and engineering. If our species evolved from a primitive monkey/man hybrid (which in turn descended from the LCA), why are there still monkeys, and why is humanity pretty much the most self-destructive species on this planet? Why are we the only species that has both instinct and the free will to choose against our own best interests? If all species shared one ancestor, there would be many different chains and stages of evolution, and the fossil record would reflect this. The truth it, it does not. Furthermore, between our last ice age, the global flood, and whatever cataclysms caused the gulf of Mexico and the breaking up of the continents, our entire geological record is skewed by variables which scientists willfully ignore.

  • CON

    There is not even consensus amongst Western Liberal...

    The LGBT community fulfills the basic principles and purposes of asylum

    There has yet to be an international consensus forged around LGBT rights and state treatment of sexual orientation. Many countries around the world are not secular Western Liberal Democracies and operate on a completely different moral standard than the West does. Many religions, and in fact state religions, do not recognize homosexuality as a legitimate lifestyle and specifically see it as a sin and a crime against the religious authority they uphold. It is not the West’s role to tell the rest of the world what their morality should be. There is not even consensus amongst Western Liberal Democracies on this issue. The United States of America still does not recognize homosexuals as deserving of equal rights to heterosexuals and many states do not allow gay marriage or gay adoption as a result[1]. The west cannot circumvent the laws of other countries when they themselves do not even hold themselves to the legal and moral standard they would like to impose on others. [1] Law, Jeffrey R., and Justin H. Phillips. "Gay Rights in the States: Public Opinion and Policy Responsiveness." American Political Science Review. 103.3 (2009): Print.